2025 ISACA CCAK: HIGH-QUALITY CERTIFICATE OF CLOUD AUDITING KNOWLEDGE VALID DUMPS BOOK

2025 ISACA CCAK: High-quality Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Valid Dumps Book

2025 ISACA CCAK: High-quality Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Valid Dumps Book

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Tags: CCAK Valid Dumps Book, CCAK Pass Exam, CCAK Regualer Update, CCAK PDF Questions, CCAK Valid Test Test

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The CCAK Certification program is an excellent opportunity for professionals involved in cloud computing auditing to enhance their knowledge and skills. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge certification is globally recognized and vendor-neutral, making it an ideal choice for individuals who work with different cloud computing platforms and technologies. The program covers various aspects of cloud auditing, including governance, risk management, and compliance, and it equips individuals with the knowledge and skills required to identify, assess, and mitigate risks related to cloud computing systems.

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ISACA Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Sample Questions (Q147-Q152):

NEW QUESTION # 147
The control domain feature within a Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) represents:

  • A. CCM's ability to scan for anomalies in DNS zones in order to detect DNS spoofing, DNS hijacking, DNS cache poisoning, and similar threats.
  • B. a logical grouping of security controls addressing the same category of IT risks or information security concerns.
  • C. a set of application programming interfaces (APIs) that allows a cloud consumer to restrict the replication area within a well-defined jurisdictional perimeter.
  • D. CCM's ability to scan and check Active Directory, LDAP, and x.500 directories for suspicious and/or privileged user accounts.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 148
An audit has identified that business units have purchased cloud-based applications without ITs support. What is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?

  • A. The applications may not reasonably protect data.
  • B. The applications are not included in business continuity plans (BCPs).
  • C. The applications could be modified without advanced notice.
  • D. The application purchases did not follow procurement policy.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 149
An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to:

  • A. determine whether the organization can be considered fully compliant with the mapped standards because of the implementation of every CCM Control Specification.
  • B. understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards.
  • C. obtain the ISO/IEC 27001 certification from an accredited certification body (CB) following the ISO
    /IEC 17021-1 standard.

Answer: B

Explanation:
An organization employing the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to perform a compliance assessment leverages the Scope Applicability direct mapping to understand which controls encompassed by the CCM may already be partially or fully implemented because of the compliance with other standards. The Scope Applicability direct mapping is a worksheet within the CCM that maps the CCM control specifications to several standards within the ISO/IEC 27000 series, such as ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 27002, ISO/IEC 27017, and ISO/IEC
27018. The mapping helps the organization to identify the commonalities and differences between the CCM and the ISO/IEC standards, and to determine the level of compliance with each standard based on the implementation of the CCM controls. The mapping also helps the organization to avoid duplication of work and to streamline the compliance assessment process.12 References := What you need to know: Transitioning CSA STAR for Cloud Controls Matrix ...1; Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA3


NEW QUESTION # 150
An auditor is assessing a European organization's compliance. Which regulation is suitable if health information needs to be protected?

  • A. DPA
  • B. HIPAA
  • C. GDPR
  • D. DPIA

Answer: C

Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the regulation that is suitable if health information needs to be protected in the European Union. The GDPR provides the legal framework for the protection of personal data, including health data, and sets out directly applicable rules for the processing of the personal data of individuals1. The GDPR defines health data as personal data related to the physical or mental health of a natural person, including the provision of health care services, which reveal information about his or her health status2. The GDPR applies to any organization that processes health data of individuals who are in the EU, regardless of where the organization is established3.
The other options are not correct. Option B, DPIA, is incorrect because DPIA stands for Data Protection Impact Assessment, which is a process that helps organizations to identify and minimize the data protection risks of a project or activity that involves processing personal data. A DPIA is not a regulation, but a tool or a requirement under the GDPR4. Option C, DPA, is incorrect because DPA stands for Data Protection Authority, which is an independent public authority that supervises, through investigative and corrective powers, the application of the data protection law. A DPA is not a regulation, but an institution or a body under the GDPR5. Option D, HIPAA, is incorrect because HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, which is a US federal law that provides data privacy and security provisions for safeguarding medical information. HIPAA does not apply to the EU, but to the US6. References :=
* European Health Data Space1
* Article 4 - Definitions | General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)2
* Article 3 - Territorial scope | General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)3
* Data protection impact assessment | European Commission4
* Data protection authorities | European Commission5
* What is HIPAA? - Definition from WhatIs.com6


NEW QUESTION # 151
Which of the following cloud service provider activities MUST obtain a client's approval?

  • A. Deleting subscription owner accounts
  • B. Destroying test data
  • C. Deleting guest accounts
  • D. Deleting test accounts

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Deleting subscription owner accounts is an activity that MUST obtain a client's approval in the context of cloud service provider activities. Subscription owner accounts are critical as they hold the ownership and control over the resources and services within a cloud subscription. Deleting these accounts can have significant implications, including loss of access, control, and potential data loss. Therefore, it is essential for a cloud service provider to seek explicit approval from the client before proceeding with such an action to ensure transparency, maintain trust, and avoid any unintended consequences.
References:
Microsoft Trust Center, Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist1.
Google Cloud, What is a Cloud Service Provider?2.
Partner Center, CSP agreements, price lists, and offers3.
Microsoft Azure, How to choose a cloud service provider4.
FCA, FG16/5 Guidance for firms outsourcing to the 'cloud' and other third-party IT services


NEW QUESTION # 152
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